Hello all!
Consider Lim n tends to infinity (1+1/n)^n .my guess is as n tends to infinity the eqn becomes (1+1/infinity)^infinity =1.but the right answer is e(I am aware of the mathematical proofs) but how different is that approach from mine?
Consider Lim n tends to infinity (1+1/n)^n .my guess is as n tends to infinity the eqn becomes (1+1/infinity)^infinity =1.but the right answer is e(I am aware of the mathematical proofs) but how different is that approach from mine?