Hello,
attached are two screenshots. The first is downloaded from the internet and shows a schematic of an ideal miller integrator in its bare bones state.
The formula given is V2/II = K/(1+KSC). The second screenshot is of my simulation in LTSPICE which I have created to try and prove the aforementioned
formula correct. The text underneath shows nodular workings I believe are correct and from which I was hoping to find the proof.
I can't solve the formula and was hoping that someone else might do so. Of course, the formula may be incorrect, it's not unheard of.
Notes on my workings: I've used the value of K to be 10. I've used the value of C as 0.1592 and the frequency as 1 (so that SC equals 1). My II value is 2 from source transformation.
Please can someone either prove or disprove the formula.
attached are two screenshots. The first is downloaded from the internet and shows a schematic of an ideal miller integrator in its bare bones state.
The formula given is V2/II = K/(1+KSC). The second screenshot is of my simulation in LTSPICE which I have created to try and prove the aforementioned
formula correct. The text underneath shows nodular workings I believe are correct and from which I was hoping to find the proof.
I can't solve the formula and was hoping that someone else might do so. Of course, the formula may be incorrect, it's not unheard of.
Notes on my workings: I've used the value of K to be 10. I've used the value of C as 0.1592 and the frequency as 1 (so that SC equals 1). My II value is 2 from source transformation.
Please can someone either prove or disprove the formula.
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