Why do you think they're not 0?well thats wrong why you think the inputs to the other two D-FF is still zero?
Believe me. You're wrong. I've already explained why. Read post #19 again.
Why do you think they're not 0?well thats wrong why you think the inputs to the other two D-FF is still zero?
I totally agree with you but i just need extra arguments from you , i really trust you people in these type of stuff i just need extra confirmation on why im wrong, so why they arent zero, because D_2 (input of the second D-FF) is Q_1 which is 1 thus it must change the Q_2 to be 1 too? or is it until the second clock cycle? so both Q_3 and Q_2 will be 0 till the second clock cycle -rising one-?Why do you think they're not 0? Believe me. You're wrong.
You aren't taking propagation delay through the flip flop in to account.because D_2 (input of the second D-FF) is Q_1 which is 1 thus it must change the Q_2 to be 1 too? or is it until the second clock cycle? so both Q_3 and Q_2 will be 0 till the second clock cycle -rising one-?
You show the FF's changing state at t1. That's not t0. The clock is low at t0.Hey, so i supposed all Q_i are 0 at t = 0, here is how my first cycle look View attachment 309608
read post #25no i do not understand it sadly , can you correct me here?View attachment 309655
What made the output of FF1 go LOW on the second clock? The input to FF1 is still HIGH.can you correct me here?
The input to FF1 is HIGH at the first clock. It's still HIGH at the second clock because the output of FF2 hasn't changed yet.im basically useless at this point idk what to do, can someone simplify what should i do ? i dont really understand

ah now i understand the propagation time infinite thanks i will follow up and post my answer, its really hard for me to understand the english words meaning while studying this in arabic :/The input to FF1 is HIGH at the first clock. It's still HIGH at the second clock because the output of FF2 hasn't changed yet.
View attachment 309656
Can you follow that?
Glad the light went on for you.infinite thanks
I figured there was a language barrier when you called it a chronogram. We call them timing diagrams.its really hard for me to understand the english words meaning while studying this in arabic
The 0 doesn't get clocked in to FF1 until the 3rd clock.But we have a XNOR operation happeing, when FF2's output is high , FF3's output is low thus D must be 0, why is FF1's output still high on rising edge?
thank you so much for being comprehensive, yes my question is why it will turn to be 0 at third 3rd cycle, isnt both Q_2 and Q_3 = 1 then the output of the XNOR will be 1 thus D -input of FF1- will be HIGH too so it wont change?Glad the light went on for you.
I figured there was a language barrier when you called it a chronogram. We call them timing diagrams.
The 0 doesn't get clocked in to FF1 until the 3rd clock.
Just before the 3rd clock cycle, Q2=1 and Q3=0, so the input to FF1 is 0.why it will turn to be 0 at third 3rd cycle, isnt both Q_2 and Q_3 = 1 then the output of the XNOR will be 1 thus D -input of FF1- will be HIGH too so it wont change?