Given a perfect theoretical un-charged inductor, to which we connect a voltage source across the terminals of the inductor, why would the inductor start conducting if at t=0+ the impedance of the inductor is infinite?
All sites and text books and forums just state that the inductor will start conducting without settling the contradiction that at t=0+ the impedance of the inductor is infinite.
I will be happy to learn
All sites and text books and forums just state that the inductor will start conducting without settling the contradiction that at t=0+ the impedance of the inductor is infinite.
I will be happy to learn