Could someone please confirm what is the correct formula for K.
I've seen:
K=1-(Lleak/Lmag)
K=1-(Lleak/Lmag)^2
and
K= SQR(1-(Lleak/Lmag))
the last one seems most accurate.
Is there any way of modelling the core loss (except the obvious one of putting a resistor across the primary which causes the real part of the magnetisation current to flow)?
I've seen:
K=1-(Lleak/Lmag)
K=1-(Lleak/Lmag)^2
and
K= SQR(1-(Lleak/Lmag))
the last one seems most accurate.
Is there any way of modelling the core loss (except the obvious one of putting a resistor across the primary which causes the real part of the magnetisation current to flow)?