Hi,
If you have a single-supply inverting opamp with a voltage reference on the non-inverting input like figure 3 from this link, would there be any benefit of adding another capacitor C3 of equal capacitance as C2 from the reference to the positive supply rail like in the attached image? Or would the result be equivalent if we ommit C3 and double the capacitance of C2?
Edit: sorry, that should be bypassing, not biasing. Can't edit the title.
If you have a single-supply inverting opamp with a voltage reference on the non-inverting input like figure 3 from this link, would there be any benefit of adding another capacitor C3 of equal capacitance as C2 from the reference to the positive supply rail like in the attached image? Or would the result be equivalent if we ommit C3 and double the capacitance of C2?
Edit: sorry, that should be bypassing, not biasing. Can't edit the title.
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