In a simple ideal BJT amplifier the input signal \(I_b\) is linearly amplified: \(I_{c}=\beta I_{b}\)
But if you replace the BJT with a FET, the input signal \(V_{gs}\) is amplified by the square: \(I_d=K(V_{gs}-V_{th})^2\)
So really you can't just replace a BJT with a FET, right? Do FET amplifiers all amplify by the square of the input signal? Is there a way to avoid that or is it just not that noticeable?
Thanks
But if you replace the BJT with a FET, the input signal \(V_{gs}\) is amplified by the square: \(I_d=K(V_{gs}-V_{th})^2\)
So really you can't just replace a BJT with a FET, right? Do FET amplifiers all amplify by the square of the input signal? Is there a way to avoid that or is it just not that noticeable?
Thanks