I'm relearning about nodal analysis when no power sources are present, and one of the things my book says is:
since resistance is a passive element,
by the passive sign convention, current
must always flow from a higher potential
to a lower potential.
It then proceeds to show an example of applying KCL and Ohm's Law to nonreference nodes, but my confusion is that when two nonreference nodes with a resistor in between had to be dealt with, one of the nonreference nodes was seemingly arbitrarily selected as the higher voltageby the passive sign convention, current
must always flow from a higher potential
to a lower potential.
\( i = \frac{v_{higher} - v_{lower}}{R} \)
Without anything I can think of indicating that the node being subtracted was a lower voltage than the other. Are nonreference nodes arbitrarily selected as higher or lower in relation to other nonreference nodes, and that's ok as long as you are consistent? Is that what is going on here? E.g. if I found all the nonreference nodes in a circuit, would, for nodal analysis, I be able to put all of the node voltages in an arbitrary chain of inequalities like
\( v_a < v_b < \ldots < v_i \)
and this would be ok as long as all the equations between nodes were consistent with the chain?
Without anything I can think of indicating that the node being subtracted was a lower voltage than the other. Are nonreference nodes arbitrarily selected as higher or lower in relation to other nonreference nodes, and that's ok as long as you are consistent? Is that what is going on here? E.g. if I found all the nonreference nodes in a circuit, would, for nodal analysis, I be able to put all of the node voltages in an arbitrary chain of inequalities like
\( v_a < v_b < \ldots < v_i \)
and this would be ok as long as all the equations between nodes were consistent with the chain?