No, I didn`t mix up anything. Please note that in the case mentioned the LG carries a negative sign.I think you mixed up the signs in the Acl of the noninv. equation, it should be "+" all the way i think..
So for coclution:
Acl (noninv.) = Aol/1+Aol*beta
Acl (inv.) = K*Aol/1+Aol*beta
Is it correct ?
No - when you look carefully, you see that I did (1/beta-Aol).I didn't understand the example, why are you doing Acl-Aol, isn't it suppose to be LG=Aol[db]-Acl[dB] ?
BTW - ROC also stand for Region of Convergence which is more common so be aware when using it.
I agree with everything you are saying, we need to find the slopes of 1/beta(dB) and Aol(dB) at the 0dB point, but why subtracting them (1/beta-Aol) as you did ?No - when you look carefully, you see that I did (1/beta-Aol).
Explanation:
To check stability we have to investigate the rate of closure for Loop gain magnitude LG=1 (0 dB). This results from the stability criterion (Nyquist).
With LG=beta*Aol=1 we have at the crossing frequency Aol=1/beta.
Thus, we have to find the slopes of both function 1/beta(dB) and Aol(dB) at this critical point. OK?
(Of course, for simple non-inv. operation we have Acl=1/beta as you have indicated. However, there are some other feedback schemes for non-inv. operation with 1/beta NOT equal to Acl. Therefore, it is important to distinguish between
1/beta and Acl - even if they are identical in some cases).
You are saying that the GENERAL formula is: Acl=Aol/1-Aol*beta, for both configurations. But you also said we need to add K factor for an inv. configuration. so what is the complete formula for the inv. AMP (K factor included) ?No, I didn`t mix up anything. Please note that in the case mentioned the LG carries a negative sign.
Explanation: In most cases, we have negative feedback only. However, sometimes we have positive feedback also (e.g. together with negative feedback).
For this reason, we have the GENERAL formula (applicable for both kinds)
Acl=Aol/1-Aol*beta
This general formula (developed by H. Black) considers a summing junction at the input of the feedback model (without any sign inversion).
For negative feedback we have LG=Aol*beta with beta<0, thus LG<0
and for pos. feedback LG>0.
I know that some books and papers show a positive sign in the denominator.
But - in this case - it must be mentioned that the formula applies to NEGATIVE feedback only!
For similar reasons also the factor K=-R2/(R1+R2) in case of inverting operation carries a negative sign.
Simple rule: Signals feeding the inv. input carry a negative sign.
Because we need to find the "angle" (more correct: rate of closure) BETWEEN both lines (asymptotes) which define the loop gain (and the loop gain is zero dB at the crossing point). Of course, for 1/beta=constant the corresponding slope is 0dB/dec and we must care about the slope of Aol only.I agree with everything you are saying, we need to find the slopes of 1/beta(dB) and Aol(dB) at the 0dB point, but why subtracting them (1/beta-Aol) as you did ?
Take the classical example with R2 as feedback resistor and R1 between signal input and inverting terminal:You are saying that the GENERAL formula is: Acl=Aol/1-Aol*beta, for both configurations. But you also said we need to add K factor for an inv. configuration. so what is the complete formula for the inv. AMP (K factor included) ?
I understand all your saying but you still didn't answer my question (or i didn't get your answer totally). Why a subtract of the magnitude between the lines (1/beta-Aol) gives you the "angle" (rate of closure) ?Because we need to find the "angle" (more correct: rate of closure) BETWEEN both lines (asymptotes) which define the loop gain (and the loop gain is zero dB at the crossing point). Of course, for 1/beta=constant the corresponding slope is 0dB/dec and we must care about the slope of Aol only.
However - in general, as indicated in my differentiator example, when 1/beta has a certain slope we must find the difference.
By the way: Such a case is the only reason for using the term "rate of closure" .
Otherwise, if 1/beta would be always a horizontal line with 0dB/dec it would suffice to say simply "slope of Aol".
OK - here comes a detailed explantion:I understand all your saying but you still didn't answer my question (or i didn't get your answer totally). Why a subtract of the magnitude between the lines (1/beta-Aol) gives you the "angle" (rate of closure) ?
This is what i said straight from top, the equation should be Aol-1/beta, and not the other way around.Loop gain LG=Aol/(1/beta).
That means: The phase response of the loop gain is the difference Phi(Aol)-Phi(1/beta).
Was this really your problem? Don`t care about it - as far as magnitudes are concerned.This is what i said straight from top, the equation should be Aol-1/beta, and not the other way around.
In your differentiator example u did 1/beta-Aol !
But the differnce between 1/beta-Aol and Aol-1/beta is crucial, if we haveWas this really your problem? Don`t care about it - as far as magnitudes are concerned.
I think, from the drawing (Aol and 1/beta, respectively) it is clear what the difference means.
More than that - as far as the SIGN of a slope is concerned - you have distinguish between "slope" and "roll-off".
Example: A slope of -20 dB/dec is identical to a roll-off of +20 dB/dec (and vice versa). I think, this explains the sign difference.
(May be, I have confused roll-off with slope in one of my answers. Sorry, if this was a problem for you).
0 dB? Yes- if you ADD both slopes. However, you must use the DIFFERENCE!But the differnce between 1/beta-Aol and Aol-1/beta is crucial, if we have in the diff. example one slop of +20dB\dec and the other -20dB\dec. So 1/beta-Aol comes to 0dB (instead of 40) !!
No - 1/beta and Aol do not merge.From the attached drawing i can't understand why the ROC is 40 dB/dec. after the crossing point the curves merged and the slope remain the same as it was.