Hi,
Consider a standard op-amp circuit (example) either inverting or non-inverting. Ignoring the 1/f noise then the
noise gain = 1 + Rf/Rg
noise band width = Gain band width product / noise gain
input referred RMS noise voltage = input referred noise density * noise band width
which is white noise. What is the nature of this noise? Is it spread out across all of the noise band width?
For an audio application, all else being equal, does a 20MHz GBW op-amp produce more audible noise than a 10MHz GBW op-amp?
I read that you can create another pole, for example with an RC filter on the output, thereby limiting the noise band width but is there any point to that if we can ignore noise above ~20kHz? If it's true that we can ignore noise above 20kHz then we can you use 20kHz as NBW for the calculation and not bother with the RC filter on the output?
Consider a standard op-amp circuit (example) either inverting or non-inverting. Ignoring the 1/f noise then the
noise gain = 1 + Rf/Rg
noise band width = Gain band width product / noise gain
input referred RMS noise voltage = input referred noise density * noise band width
which is white noise. What is the nature of this noise? Is it spread out across all of the noise band width?
For an audio application, all else being equal, does a 20MHz GBW op-amp produce more audible noise than a 10MHz GBW op-amp?
I read that you can create another pole, for example with an RC filter on the output, thereby limiting the noise band width but is there any point to that if we can ignore noise above ~20kHz? If it's true that we can ignore noise above 20kHz then we can you use 20kHz as NBW for the calculation and not bother with the RC filter on the output?