How do the math of this op-amp........?

WBahn

Joined Mar 31, 2012
30,072
This looks like homework. Is it? If so we can move it to the Homework Help forum.

What do you mean by Vout = +/- 1.44 V? Where does that come from?

Before worrying about other values of V++, show what you get for the value given. Why/how did you arrive at that value?
 

Thread Starter

f8voa

Joined Jun 5, 2013
7
Not at all , I'm 64 Years old and try to understand this problem . I know opamps but not this one ( never saw it before )
It is a part of an electronic test equipment .
Marco
 

Thread Starter

f8voa

Joined Jun 5, 2013
7
OK , thanks a lot , I can see at the end a little bit light now .
I'l try to do it that way in Spice .
Marco
 

WBahn

Joined Mar 31, 2012
30,072
As I said before : approx 1.44V ( +/- means approx ) - LTSpice results

Thanks , Marco
Ah, there's the source of confusion (probably an English as second language issue). The notation "+/-" does not mean "approximately". It means, literally, positive or negative. So the supply voltages of a bipolar opamp might be given as +/- 12 V meaning +12 V and -12 V. Or the input signal range might be +/- 10 V meaning from -10 V to +10 V. To indicate "approximately", you should use the tilde character, so ~1.44 V. The special symbol ≈1.44 V is even better.
 

WBahn

Joined Mar 31, 2012
30,072
So if the opamp is doing what it should, when V++ = 1.0 V, then the voltage at the other input will also be very close to 1.0 V. That means that a current of 1 V / 47 kΩ or about 21 μA will flow. A look at the data sheet

http://www.onsemi.com/pub/Collateral/1N914-D.PDF

Shows that at this current the typical forward voltage drop is about 425 mV, so we would expect Vout to be ~1.42 V, which is very close to the LTspice sim results.
 
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