hi all
i'm having trouble making sense of impedance. bear with me a second: i'm going to start slow because i want to be sure of asking this question properly.
let's say an ideal inductor, with inductance L, has leads A and B, and that B is grounded, so that B's voltage level by definition is always zero. let V(t) be the voltage level of A at time t, and let I(t) be the current going through the inductor at time t, measured in such a way that a current entering through A and exiting through B is taken as positive.
in this situation is it not the case that
V(t) = (-1) * L * I'(t)
where I' is the derivative of I ...? if i'm already mistaken about this part there's no point asking the rest of my question, so i'll leave it there for now and hopefully someone can offer some enlightenment.
peace
stm
i'm having trouble making sense of impedance. bear with me a second: i'm going to start slow because i want to be sure of asking this question properly.
let's say an ideal inductor, with inductance L, has leads A and B, and that B is grounded, so that B's voltage level by definition is always zero. let V(t) be the voltage level of A at time t, and let I(t) be the current going through the inductor at time t, measured in such a way that a current entering through A and exiting through B is taken as positive.
in this situation is it not the case that
V(t) = (-1) * L * I'(t)
where I' is the derivative of I ...? if i'm already mistaken about this part there's no point asking the rest of my question, so i'll leave it there for now and hopefully someone can offer some enlightenment.
peace
stm