Nope. If the permeability was not uniform with radius, that could have an effect.thanks for the replying. it helped me a lot.
edit - can i ask you one more?
the question says that the iron is of infinite permeability and neglect the effects of magnetic leakage and fringing.
Do this assumption affects the calculation of mean core length?
Hello,View attachment 161191
(sorry for my bad english)
ri=3.4cm, ro=40.cm
and the question is calculating the mean core length, and the answer is
View attachment 161193
but i cant understand how this calculation came out.
i think it should be 2*pi*(r0+ri)/2=pi(r0+ri),, i need explanations for this problem.
thanks
I don't think you mean that. The gap is still a critical piece and it's size matters.The fact that the core permeability is infinite may change things too though because then the gap doesnt have any effect.
It might, by coincidence, produce the right result in this example. But the formula is incorrect. If anyone challenges you on that, tell them to imagine a toroid with Ro of 100 and Ri of 99. Do they really believe the mean core length is just 2π?you meanthis answer is wrong?
Hi,I don't think you mean that. The gap is still a critical piece and it's size matters.
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