WE all know that the height of a continuous time impulse function is infinity . Then how come does each individual pulses of an impulse train is 1?
Can u give me an idea on how it can be approximated"1" is the area under the impulse. That is the integral from -∞ to +∞ of a unit impulse is 1. This is a mathematical abstraction which of course cannot be realized in practice by any physical circuit. It can however be approximated.
Sure. Start with a normal distribution having a mean of zero and a variance of 1. The integral from -∞ to +∞ is one. Now in the limit as the variance goes to zero the height of the distribution approaches ∞. At any point along the way it represents an approximation of the unit impulse..Can u give me an idea on how it can be approximated
I used to work in industrial automation controls, but I have been retired since 2014 after a career spanning half a century.Thanks a lot for the intuition!
Just out of curiosity as you had answered several of my questions, do you work somewhere as a signal processing engineer
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