Why is it that (s+1)/(s^2-1) can be written 1/(s-1)?
B Thread Starter boks Joined Oct 10, 2008 218 Jan 20, 2010 #1 Why is it that (s+1)/(s^2-1) can be written 1/(s-1)?
F Fraser_Integration Joined Nov 28, 2009 142 Jan 20, 2010 #2 s^2 -1 can be factorised to (s + 1)(s - 1). then divide both sides by s + 1
A AdamPrulhiere Joined Nov 12, 2009 14 Jan 21, 2010 #3 Fraser_Integration said: s^2 -1 can be factorised to (s + 1)(s - 1). then divide both sides by s + 1 Click to expand... more generally, s^2 -1 is a difference of squares, (s^2 - 1^2). the general difference of squares (x^2 - a^2) factors to (x+a)(x-a)
Fraser_Integration said: s^2 -1 can be factorised to (s + 1)(s - 1). then divide both sides by s + 1 Click to expand... more generally, s^2 -1 is a difference of squares, (s^2 - 1^2). the general difference of squares (x^2 - a^2) factors to (x+a)(x-a)
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