Below is an exert from the text, and it is incorrect, see bold....
"Here, as in any one-source, one-load circuit, the voltage dropped across the load must equal the voltage supplied by the source, assuming zero voltage dropped along the resistance of any connecting wires. In other words, the load (inductor coil) must produce an opposing voltage equal in magnitude to the source, in order that it may balance against the source voltage and produce an algebraic loop voltage sum of zero. From where does this opposing voltage arise? If the load were a resistor, the opposing voltage would originate from the "friction" of electrons flowing through the resistance of the resistor. With a perfect inductor (no resistance in the coil wire), the opposing voltage comes from another mechanism: the reaction to a changing magnetic flux in the iron core.
Is this the correct way to state this? it does not coincide with resolving voltages into electric fields with certain amount of potential energy to move/interact with charge.
thoughts?
"Here, as in any one-source, one-load circuit, the voltage dropped across the load must equal the voltage supplied by the source, assuming zero voltage dropped along the resistance of any connecting wires. In other words, the load (inductor coil) must produce an opposing voltage equal in magnitude to the source, in order that it may balance against the source voltage and produce an algebraic loop voltage sum of zero. From where does this opposing voltage arise? If the load were a resistor, the opposing voltage would originate from the "friction" of electrons flowing through the resistance of the resistor. With a perfect inductor (no resistance in the coil wire), the opposing voltage comes from another mechanism: the reaction to a changing magnetic flux in the iron core.
Is this the correct way to state this? it does not coincide with resolving voltages into electric fields with certain amount of potential energy to move/interact with charge.
thoughts?