Reduce the problem to smaller problems that, if solved, would let you solve the bigger problem.Hi,
Hoping for a prompt in the right direction regarding a unkown voltage on a Non Inverting Op Amp.
Any help would be greatly appreciated.
The step you are missing is establishing that V+ is equal to 100 mV. Once you do that, then you can use the property of an opamp that states that, in the active region, V+ is equal to V-. But it's a different properly of an ideal opamp that allows you to claim that V+ is equal to 100 mV. What property is that?I do know that unknown voltage is 100 mV as op amp is ideal. V+=V-
I believe to show just answer it's not enough.
Good explanation. I know you know the electronics part, but why do you keep using none for non? As in non inverting input. Do you really not know the correct spelling?Ok. This actually a much simpler problem. But, reading of textbook is required.
Assuming ideal op amp.
Ip is current entering none inverting input.
In is current entering inverting input.
Ip=In=0 This is fundamental property of ideal op amp.
This means that there is 0 current through R1. This means that there is no voltage drop across R1. Therefore none inverting input of the op amp has 100 mV.
Now we apply other property of ideal op amp. The Virtual Short between the inputs of ideal op amp. We now know that input to none inverting input is 100 mV. Therefore the inverting input will also have 100 mV. V is the voltage at the inverting input, therefore V is 100 mV.
Too lazy to look it up. I will remember it better now.Good explanation. I kow you know the electronics part, but why do you keep using none for non? As in non inverting input. Do you really not know the correct spelling?
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by Aaron Carman