could you explain this brieflyand all energy signals are power signals since the average power of an energy signal is zero
consider step signal ,here the energy is infinite over all time but the power is not finite over all time . It is finite only for 0 to infinity and not for minus infinity to 0 still we say it has power signal .why?then a signal with infinite energy over all time still might have finite power over all time.
What is the average power of ANY signal that has finite energy over all time?i got some stuffs form the link above ,still i have confusion, i sate what are those
1)
could you explain this briefly
How you are coming to the conclusion that the power in a step signal is infinite from minus infinity to 0?2)This is your statement form the first link you have given
consider step signal ,here the energy is infinite over all time but the power is not finite over all time . It is finite only for 0 to infinity and not for minus infinity to 0 still we say it has power signal .why?
zero, since energy divided by entire period is zeroWhat is the average power of ANY signal that has finite energy over all time?
power is energy per time and its constant for all period .if i say the sine wave has power 2(it mean 2 units of energy spent per unit time OVER ENTIRE PERIOD).and in unit step there is no signal for minus infinity to zero so how could we say power for that .am i making any senseHow you are coming to the conclusion that the power in a step signal is infinite from minus infinity to 0?
Yes.if a signal is zero over finite period then energy is zero and so power is also zero.am i right?
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