I have a question which is haunting me for a long time.Till now I did not get any proper explanation.

If you can explain with mathematical proof it is appreciated.

**The virtual short concept is only applied to op-amps in negative feedback configuration, and not in case of positive feedback.**

Is there any plausible reason for this?

Is there any plausible reason for this?

My expectation is that mathematical proof which explains why it is applicable to negative feedback and not applicable to positive feedback

Regards

HARI