I'm reading this page about a BJT astable multivibrator:
http://www.learnabout-electronics.org/Oscillators/osc41.php
I'm confused by the following two passages, can anyone help explain?
"it is the nature of a capacitor that when the voltage on one plate changes rapidly, the other plate also undergoes a similar rapid change, therefore as the right hand plate of C2 falls rapidly from supply voltage to almost zero, the left hand plate must fall in voltage by a similar amount."
*my confusion: Why does the cap discharge, and not keep charging? It still has a 0v potential at one side, and Vcc through a resistor on the other.
and
"With TR1 conducting, its base would have been about 0.6V, so as TR2 conducts TR1 base falls to 0.6 −9V = −8.4V, a negative voltage almost equal and opposite to that of the +9V supply voltage."
*My confusion: why does it fall -9v?
Thank you for any help
http://www.learnabout-electronics.org/Oscillators/osc41.php
I'm confused by the following two passages, can anyone help explain?
"it is the nature of a capacitor that when the voltage on one plate changes rapidly, the other plate also undergoes a similar rapid change, therefore as the right hand plate of C2 falls rapidly from supply voltage to almost zero, the left hand plate must fall in voltage by a similar amount."
*my confusion: Why does the cap discharge, and not keep charging? It still has a 0v potential at one side, and Vcc through a resistor on the other.
and
"With TR1 conducting, its base would have been about 0.6V, so as TR2 conducts TR1 base falls to 0.6 −9V = −8.4V, a negative voltage almost equal and opposite to that of the +9V supply voltage."
*My confusion: why does it fall -9v?
Thank you for any help