Hi , I've been struggling with this on many other places so decided to come here who knows where help might arive. So not to make long poems here goes. I will talk about the simplest possible setup for the sake of simplicity and the argument , keep in mind the geometry and other things might be updated. A faraday disc , brushes and a load attached , I now attach a torque source to the disc which spins it , then I inject some current through the disc into the load or I could say the circuit, this produces a current this current going through the disc should create a magnetic field around it , so here is the question can this magnetic field then continue to serve also as the exciteent field for further current generation in the disc , assuming there is constant torque provided to the disc spinning it ? In other words normally you would use a permanent magnet which provides the field and then the disc spins and due to the magnetic field flux cutting the disc under Lezn law the electrons will drift from rim to center or vice versa but as we know from the faraday paradox it doest matter either you spin the magnet with the disc ir keep the magnet stationary and spin just the disc current is generated either way , so I was thinking does the wire (disc) care at all whether the field is coming from a separate magnet or coil or the field is the result of the very current flowing through the disc , shouldn't it be the same , so would I get current produced without external magnets just the field of the disc itself?