Boolean Algebraic Manipulation

MrChips

Joined Oct 2, 2009
30,824
Did you do it by drawing the Karnaugh map and grouping as many 1's as possible, wrapping around the edges of the table?

Your answer is correct, but not the only solution.
 

Thread Starter

amishjeb

Joined Sep 9, 2012
14
Did you do it by drawing the Karnaugh map and grouping as many 1's as possible, wrapping around the edges of the table?

Your answer is correct, but not the only solution.
I did, but in one of the tutorials I found, it said that 1s needed to be grouped in either 2, 4 or 8. So I didn't group the bottom three 1s, but broke it up into the middle two 1s and then the two on the ends.

00 01 11 10
0 1 0 0 1
1 0 1 1 1

Not sure if that helps to show the grouping.
 

WBahn

Joined Mar 31, 2012
30,082
Assuming your map is correct, then it looks like you did it just right.

It doesn't appear that you are trying to get someone to do your homework for you. You are giving use the results of what you've done, including some information about the intermediate steps you passed through on the way. That is what we want and expect. For the most part, we are more than happy to spot check your work.

Keep up the good work.
 

MrChips

Joined Oct 2, 2009
30,824
You grouped xy'z' + xy'z = xy'

You could also have chosen xyz + xy'z = xz

You are correct to group in 2, 4, 8.
You are doing it right. Congratulations.
 
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