Im considering the situation where Beta = infinity
here is my issue
Everyone knows thats
Its assumed when beta = infinity ib = 0
Ie = (b+1)(ib)
Also
Ie = ib+ic
Hence most people say when Ib=0
Ic = ie
These two equations are contradictory.
From the first equation we see that if ib = 0 then Ie = 0
from the second equation we see that if ib = 0 then Ic = ie
How is this possible.
I know beta = infinity is commonly referred to as saturation
But i can't recall why these two equations are contradictory like this.
They must agree and for the reasons stated above they do not
Someone help me remember why please?
here is my issue
Everyone knows thats
Its assumed when beta = infinity ib = 0
Ie = (b+1)(ib)
Also
Ie = ib+ic
Hence most people say when Ib=0
Ic = ie
These two equations are contradictory.
From the first equation we see that if ib = 0 then Ie = 0
from the second equation we see that if ib = 0 then Ic = ie
How is this possible.
I know beta = infinity is commonly referred to as saturation
But i can't recall why these two equations are contradictory like this.
They must agree and for the reasons stated above they do not
Someone help me remember why please?