Please don't take offence at title, its a direct quote,
Background,
Here in Europe, we have tv adverts that come up with statements on lines of
When advertising things like hair products, "65 % of women agreed" , to a question like "my hair is shinier than the other product"
At the bottom in small print , they have to show the sample size,
which in this case was 43 of 67 agree.
Now ignoring the the fact the that should be 64%, i.e. they have rounded up.
It got me wondering,
and I know we have some great mathematicians here,
If lets say, the odds of a person agreeing is 50:50
How many would we have to ask, to have a 50:50 chance of finding a run of 67 where 43 agree ?
Background,
Here in Europe, we have tv adverts that come up with statements on lines of
When advertising things like hair products, "65 % of women agreed" , to a question like "my hair is shinier than the other product"
At the bottom in small print , they have to show the sample size,
which in this case was 43 of 67 agree.
Now ignoring the the fact the that should be 64%, i.e. they have rounded up.
It got me wondering,
and I know we have some great mathematicians here,
If lets say, the odds of a person agreeing is 50:50
How many would we have to ask, to have a 50:50 chance of finding a run of 67 where 43 agree ?