So op-amps are meant to have a high input resistance right? Typically 10^5 - 10^13 Ω according to my university studies. I don't understand exactly why?
One explanation I can think of: because op-amps amplify a signal, therefore you'd want to lower the signal as much as possible before amplifying? But this doesn't make sense to me, since why not just amplify what you're already getting at the input? Then you have inverting amplifiers..
I know that op-amps have a low output impedance (10-100Ω) and this is pretty obvious why...I'm just stuck with the high input impedance.
One explanation I can think of: because op-amps amplify a signal, therefore you'd want to lower the signal as much as possible before amplifying? But this doesn't make sense to me, since why not just amplify what you're already getting at the input? Then you have inverting amplifiers..
I know that op-amps have a low output impedance (10-100Ω) and this is pretty obvious why...I'm just stuck with the high input impedance.