Indeed that is the issue, but the unsuspecting will miss that point and assume that it is mathematical magic! You can also see that since x - y = 0, then 1(x - y) = 2(x - y) equates to 0 = 0, and not 1 = 2.divison by zero is meaningless
indeterminate,
incorrect,
forbidden,
u have invoked the wrath of the math deity
for those who r confused
since X-Y =0
The same happens here: (a+b)(a-b)=b(a-b) - as above.a=b
a^2=b^2
a^2=a.b
a^2-b^2=ab-b^2
(a+b)(a-b)=b(a-b)
a+b=b
2b=b
2=1
Oh yeah, remember them. I think this shows that the problem is down to interpretation of the question...and the subsequent lack of understanding!
Oh yeah, remember them. I think this shows that the problem is down to interpretation of the question...and the subsequent lack of understanding!
Dave
D'oh! I meant in general of course...
considering i was the one to raise the incorrect diffrentiation question
well i know it wasnt meant for me since my maths skills are exceptionalD'oh! I meant in general of course...
Dave
Very good!well i know it wasnt meant for me since my maths skills are exceptional
i know 5 + 8 = 14
Go on then, explain.when it comes to maths there is more to it than just some proofs;
consider this graph which can not be plotted;
plot y Vs x
Y = 1 : for x = rational number;
Y = -1 : for x = irrational number.
You mean irrational heresince there are infinite rational numbers between two rational numbers and vice versa, between the two smallest points there are infinite point
It origins from the Buffon's needle problem. You can use thisi want to have a look at the pi=2 proof ,can u post it?
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