The op-amp is just an non-inverting op-amp.
The question I have is I am given R2 = 1 MΩ and the op-amp has a voltage gain of 40dB. The op-amp is non-ideal because the question has to do with offset voltage and bias current. I am wondering if you can still calculate R1 this way if its non-ideal:
\(\frac{V_{out}}{V_{in}} = 1 + \frac{R_{2}}{R_{1}}\)
\(40dB = 1 + \frac{R_{2}}{R_{1}}\)
\(100 = 1 + \frac{R_{2}}{R_{1}}\)
\(99R_{1} = R_{2}\)
\(R_{1} = \frac{R_{2}}{99}\)
\(R_{1} = 10.1k\Omega\)