The Electrician
- Joined Oct 9, 2007
- 2,970
When you say "...just consider Vref, at equilibrium...", apparently you mean to set Vin to zero so we're only considering the effect of Vref.if you just consider Vref, at equilibrium, there is no current going through R2. so node A's potential is Vref * R3/(R3+R4) = Vo.
so the gain there is R3/(R3+R4) with regards to Vref.
If Vin is zero, then node A is also at zero volts and the voltage "gain" from Vref to node A is zero. Even if Vin is at some non-zero voltage, applying a voltage to Vref causes no change in the voltage at node A (the - input of the opamp), so the voltage gain from Vref to node A is still zero.
If Vin is at zero volts, the left end of R2 is at zero volts, and if Vref is not zero, then the right end of R2 is at some non-zero voltage, so there is current in R2 when Vin is zero and Vref is not zero.
If Vin is at zero volts (effectively grounded), then node A is also at zero volts and R3 is connected between the + and - inputs of the opamp, and does nothing with respect to the voltage gain from Vref.
The gain from Vref to the opamp output is:
\(- \frac{R2 R5+R1(R2+R5)}{R1 R4}\)
and doesn't involve R3.
If R5 is replaced with a short, then the voltage gain from Vref to the opamp output would be:
\(- \frac{R2}{R4}\)
again not involving R3.
With the full circuit in operation, the output impedance which drives R5 is:
\(\frac{R1R3R4(1+Av)+R2(R3+R4)}{R3R4+(R1+R2)(R3+R4)}\)
where Av is the opamp open loop gain. A real opamp's Av will vary with frequency, of course.