Hi all,

I'm stuck on getting the right answer to the following problem:

It's asking me to convert the right circuit into the norton equivalent.

Here's the work that I've done.. but I can't get the right answer:
http://s18.postimg.org/mntlo8fsp/my_attempt.jpg

It would be great if someone can point me out where I went wrong.

Thanks!

 

You start your analysis with the assertion that i2=0A. What is this based on?

 

My thought process was that since the circuit was being shorted, that all the current will go through the short, and none would go down R3.

But when I think about it again.. would the dependent voltage source generate a current through R3?

 

My thought process was that since the circuit was being shorted, that all the current will go through the short, and none would go down R3.

A reasonable, but wrong, conclusion. All the short does is impose the constraint that the voltage across it is 0V. It does NOT require that ALL the current go through it, just whatever current that must flow through it in order to impose the 0V constraint across it.

But when I think about it again.. would the dependent voltage source generate a current through R3?

Yep.

 

Thanks for the help! The explanation really helped me clear up on alot of problems I have with Norton equivalents!

 

Do the Thevenin equivalent circuit. This will give you Vth in series with Rth. Then do source transformation, Vth with Rth in series becomes Current Source in parallel with Resistor.