I am trying to understand the math that produces the results shown on the following schematic. From reading about op-amps used in inverting closed loop configurations, I would have expected an output at pin 1 of 367 mV (the ratio of R2 to R1 [10x] times the input voltage.) As you can see, that's not even close. What am I missing?
Yes, this looks like homework, but I assure you that it is self inflicted work.
Thanks.
Yes, this looks like homework, but I assure you that it is self inflicted work.
Thanks.
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