Exams are approaching, and I'm working through some old assignments. One of which is a cause of great confusion:
I'm supposed to find the time-domain description of a symmetric triangle pulse with halfperiod T=1, and maximum amplitude A=1, starting at t=0 and returning to 0 at t=2T, and then Laplace-transform it. In of itself this is not very difficult, and I think I know how to do it correctly, BUT:
Take a look at the attached plot. The blue curve correctly describes the signal, but the red curve is what gives the correct Laplace-transform. Can someone please explain to me why this is, as I can't seem to wrap my head around it.
The only thing I can imagine is if the delayed unit step function u(t-d) has some additional operator-like properties, so that u(t-d)*f(t) becomes u(t-d)*f(t-d). Or something...
Any thoughts are appreciated.
edit: a = A/T
I'm supposed to find the time-domain description of a symmetric triangle pulse with halfperiod T=1, and maximum amplitude A=1, starting at t=0 and returning to 0 at t=2T, and then Laplace-transform it. In of itself this is not very difficult, and I think I know how to do it correctly, BUT:
Take a look at the attached plot. The blue curve correctly describes the signal, but the red curve is what gives the correct Laplace-transform. Can someone please explain to me why this is, as I can't seem to wrap my head around it.
The only thing I can imagine is if the delayed unit step function u(t-d) has some additional operator-like properties, so that u(t-d)*f(t) becomes u(t-d)*f(t-d). Or something...
Any thoughts are appreciated.
edit: a = A/T
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