Evening gents,
Can someone explain to me how,
\(\Delta f(s) = \frac{-K}{1+sT} \Delta P_{d}(s)\)
becomes
\(\Delta f(t) = -K (1-e^{\frac{-t}{T}})|P_{d}(t)|\)
when removed from the Laplace domain.
I would have expected the following result,
\(\Delta f(t) = \frac{-K}{T} e^{\frac{-t}{T}}P_{d}(t)\)
I'm guessing maybe there was an initial condition imposed such that,
\(\Delta f(t=0) = 0\)
Any ideas?
Can someone explain to me how,
\(\Delta f(s) = \frac{-K}{1+sT} \Delta P_{d}(s)\)
becomes
\(\Delta f(t) = -K (1-e^{\frac{-t}{T}})|P_{d}(t)|\)
when removed from the Laplace domain.
I would have expected the following result,
\(\Delta f(t) = \frac{-K}{T} e^{\frac{-t}{T}}P_{d}(t)\)
I'm guessing maybe there was an initial condition imposed such that,
\(\Delta f(t=0) = 0\)
Any ideas?