hello all, I was pondering, and I came upon something I couldn't quite find an answer for. Newton's law says all the forces are equal to zero as long as you account for all of the forces in a closed system. And an electron passing through a magnetic field has a force exerted upon it, causing it to oscillate. My questions are these: To satisfy Newton's law, where does the opposite Force Vector apply to(remember, a force is a kg*m/s^2? I was thinking it applied to whatever was making the magnetic field, but would this be correct? And if that hypothesis were correct, would you be able to cause a force on the electron by just moving the electric field similar to Electromagnetic Induction(I think you should be able to, due to Galilean transformations) Assuming that is also correct, would the a rotating trio of magnets be able to keep a charged particle(positive or negative, doesn't matter, as long as the mass approaches 0, so you can factor out gravity and the attraction between masses, but that shouldn't be a problem anyways) traveling in a straight line down the magnets(which are rotating around the particle)? The magnets(which for all purposes would be bars with very little width and x length are separated 120 degrees. They form an Equilateral Triangle all the way throughout the arms. The triangle is perpendicular to the direction the arms are facing. The motion of the particle would be parallel the arms, perpendicular the direction they are rotating.