Hi Folks,
Got a question regarding using Faradays Law to calculate the induced EMF. I know there is a fundamental problem with my understanding of this area so please be gentle with me.
Faradays Law is as follows:
e = -N d (AB cos 0) / dt (I have use 0 to denote theta)
I have also seen the equation as follows:
e = NAB sin 0 (This is the derivative of the first equation (Is that right))
This suggests that if a conductor is placed in a magnetic field it will induce a current. Also if the conductor is moved once in the magnetic field it will also induce a current. However if the conductor is moved parallel to the direction of the magnetic flux there will be zero induced voltage as there is no cutting on the magnetic flux (there is a zero angle difference and sin 0 is 0 therefore e = 0). When the conductor is at 90 degrees there is maximum induced current as the cutting of the flux would be maximum at that point.
Firstly I would like someone to confirm that I am correct with what I have stated above. If I am that raises another question for me, if the conductor was placed inside a magnetic field where the conductor is parallel with the magnetic flux i.e. there is no cutting of the flux then the equation would suggest that no EMF is induced in the conductor but surly it would.
Can one of you good people help me to overcome my confusion, Thank you in advance?
Jag.
Got a question regarding using Faradays Law to calculate the induced EMF. I know there is a fundamental problem with my understanding of this area so please be gentle with me.
Faradays Law is as follows:
e = -N d (AB cos 0) / dt (I have use 0 to denote theta)
I have also seen the equation as follows:
e = NAB sin 0 (This is the derivative of the first equation (Is that right))
This suggests that if a conductor is placed in a magnetic field it will induce a current. Also if the conductor is moved once in the magnetic field it will also induce a current. However if the conductor is moved parallel to the direction of the magnetic flux there will be zero induced voltage as there is no cutting on the magnetic flux (there is a zero angle difference and sin 0 is 0 therefore e = 0). When the conductor is at 90 degrees there is maximum induced current as the cutting of the flux would be maximum at that point.
Firstly I would like someone to confirm that I am correct with what I have stated above. If I am that raises another question for me, if the conductor was placed inside a magnetic field where the conductor is parallel with the magnetic flux i.e. there is no cutting of the flux then the equation would suggest that no EMF is induced in the conductor but surly it would.
Can one of you good people help me to overcome my confusion, Thank you in advance?
Jag.