I need some help on how to approach this one, the way i see it i can combine C1 and R1 and then because it is ideal no current flows into - terminal so same current is through R1//C1 and R2, then if that is true i have one node that i do kcl on which would be at the output of the op-amp, is this thinking correct?
if it is correct then i would proceed by saying i1 - i2 = 0 (from where i re-drew circuit) and remove i3 from my drawing since the current would be i1
if it is correct then i would proceed by saying i1 - i2 = 0 (from where i re-drew circuit) and remove i3 from my drawing since the current would be i1
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