hi everybody ready to help with a probably elementary misunderstanding.
I have only knowledge about building diy brushed motors, no theoretical background,
I have read that dc motor maximal mechanical output energy happens when Eb,back emf, is iniput voltage /2 and max output energy is thus V/2 x armature current.
( this V/2 got derivating P in respect of I (P= IV- IaxIaxRa and setting V=2xRa=0)
The question is :how proportion mechanical energy out/ electric energy in (efficiency) is often said to be even 90-98 % , should be 50%?!
(also why not number of ampere turns effect on mechanical output energy, these effect of course Eb but....)
thanks a lot
I have only knowledge about building diy brushed motors, no theoretical background,
I have read that dc motor maximal mechanical output energy happens when Eb,back emf, is iniput voltage /2 and max output energy is thus V/2 x armature current.
( this V/2 got derivating P in respect of I (P= IV- IaxIaxRa and setting V=2xRa=0)
The question is :how proportion mechanical energy out/ electric energy in (efficiency) is often said to be even 90-98 % , should be 50%?!
(also why not number of ampere turns effect on mechanical output energy, these effect of course Eb but....)
thanks a lot