Hi guys this might be a stupid question but i need a clarification please

so when we have a transmission line terminated in a short circuit , basically we have the impadance of the load is zero since the voltage in a short citcuit is zero
and we know that the input impedance Z(in) = j*Z0 tan beta*L
so when L is zero which indicate i guess the input impedance at the load , Z(in) would be zero but wht id ont get is how when L = Pi/4 I have the input impedance equal to infinty even though tan of Pi/4 is one !!


any help please
thanks

 

Hi guys this might be a stupid question but i need a clarification please

so when we have a transmission line terminated in a short circuit , basically we have the impadance of the load is zero since the voltage in a short citcuit is zero
and we know that the input impedance Z(in) = j*Z0 tan beta*L
so when L is zero which indicate i guess the input impedance at the load , Z(in) would be zero but wht id ont get is how when L = Pi/4 I have the input impedance equal to infinty even though tan of Pi/4 is one !!


any help please
thanks

You shouldn't guess. You can look stuff like this up.