Sign convention problem for laplace transform?

NISM1906

Joined Dec 27, 2010
3
Not sure what you mean... what are you looking for in the problem. Conversion to laplacian notation is easier if you leave out the numbers initially and just get the equation. ie. V1+V2 - R - 1/Cs - Ls = 0 (KVL). Again, not sure what you are solving for, in the problem.
 
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