Sign convention problem for laplace transform?

Discussion in 'Homework Help' started by TripleDeuce, Apr 14, 2011.

  1. TripleDeuce

    Thread Starter New Member

    Sep 20, 2010
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  2. NISM1906

    New Member

    Dec 27, 2010
    3
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    Not sure what you mean... what are you looking for in the problem. Conversion to laplacian notation is easier if you leave out the numbers initially and just get the equation. ie. V1+V2 - R - 1/Cs - Ls = 0 (KVL). Again, not sure what you are solving for, in the problem.
     
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