scientific term for information/lie spread via media/marketing

ronv

Joined Nov 12, 2008
3,770
Near as I can tell it's about 1%. But don't forget these are only first marriages of people 15 to 44. I would expect older people to have a higher death rate and second plus marriage to have a higher divorce rate as well. Here's the whole paragraph.

"Looking at 20 years, the probability that the first marriages of women and men will survive was 52% for women and 56% for men in 2006–2010. These levels are virtually identical to estimates based on vital statistics from the early 1970s (24). For women, there was no significant change in the probability of a first marriage lasting 20 years between the 1995 NSFG (50%) and the 2006– 2010 NSFG (52%) (Table 5). The remainder of first marriages that ended within a 20-year period were dissolved by divorce, separation, or rarely, by death. "
 

JoeJester

Joined Apr 26, 2005
4,390
Yeah, I have no doubt they will track it ... and when two gay men get divorced, they both would be counted in the Men's percentage. The same for two lesbians and the women's group.
 

#12

Joined Nov 30, 2010
18,224
Do you think the government will modify their databases to accept same sex divorces?
I was wondering how there was a difference between divorces for men and divorces for women. That clears it up. :D

Prior to that statement, I could only imagine my real life experience wherein I thought I was happily married, but apparently my wife wasn't married at all.

There is probably a much more reasonable explanation and I'm just showing my ignorance about how statistical math works. :p
 

Treeman

Joined May 22, 2014
157
Yeah, I have no doubt they will track it ... and when two gay men get divorced, they both would be counted in the Men's percentage. The same for two lesbians and the women's group.
Which suggests an interesting new statistic:

Who gets divorced more. Men or women?
 

Brownout

Joined Jan 10, 2012
2,390
I was wondering how there was a difference between divorces for men and divorces for women. That clears it up. :D

Prior to that statement, I could only imagine my real life experience wherein I thought I was happily married, but apparently my wife wasn't married at all.

There is probably a much more reasonable explanation and I'm just showing my ignorance about how statistical math works. :p
What if you were married 3 times to women who were married just that once. Would that be 3 women divorced and 1 man?
 
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