Here is a derivation that I am stuck on. You may notice that it is a transfer function of an op-amp. I have seen this solution before, but no derivation so I decided to takle it myself.
My question is how in the world is (1-b) reduced from R2K/(R2 + R1 - R1K)?
See attached.
My question is how in the world is (1-b) reduced from R2K/(R2 + R1 - R1K)?
See attached.
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