Hi, I'm readting The Art Of Electronics and I have a question about the Miller Effect.
The theorem says that the capacitance between the base and collector looks like a bigger one between base and ground due to the voltage amplification at the collector, so the equivalent capacitance is Ccb(1+G).
I understand the principle but my question is: how can the gain be the same than without the effect? The gain without the miller effect depends on the collector current, but wouldn't this gain be reduced because of the current passing through the "capacitor" betwen base and collector?
The theorem says that the capacitance between the base and collector looks like a bigger one between base and ground due to the voltage amplification at the collector, so the equivalent capacitance is Ccb(1+G).
I understand the principle but my question is: how can the gain be the same than without the effect? The gain without the miller effect depends on the collector current, but wouldn't this gain be reduced because of the current passing through the "capacitor" betwen base and collector?
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