Laplace tranform property

Discussion in 'Math' started by mavromap, Mar 29, 2008.

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  1. mavromap

    Thread Starter New Member

    Feb 9, 2008
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    Does anybody have an idea how to prove this property:

    L{ t f(t) } = -F'(s)

    Thank you.

    p.s. L stands for Laplace transform
     
  2. hgmjr

    Moderator

    Jan 28, 2005
    9,030
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    This thread has been locked due to the fact that it is a duplicate.

    hgmjr
     
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