Hello,

I have a stupid question, i just finish my homework but i have a doubt.

Is it right to say that the z transform of ((2)/(s^(2)(s+1)) equal the 2 times z transform of (1/s^(2)) mutilpy by the z transform (1)/(s+1)
Is yes can you send me the proof or some step to look for

Thanks

 

Yes it is.

Look here for the convolution property:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Z-transform

 

mik3,

But is not a convolution is it just a product ?