Hi
I'm trying to understand the working principle of an AC motor
Basically the only equation I know in magnetism so far is the equation for the Lorentz force which I know as Fb=q*vxB
Looking at an AC generator, my intuition tells me that we should use this equation for the Lorentz force, for a single particle to find the direction and determine the force, then from there perhaps intergrate over the entire wire to find the total current induced
I see in books/videos however that this seems to be governed by Faradays Law which wikipedia states as:
The induced electromotive force in any closed circuit is equal to the negative of the time rate of change of the magnetic flux through the circuit.
Does this mean that the basic equation I know: Fb=q*vxB is somehow realted to (or derived from) Faradays law? What is the relation between them? Can Faradays Law be seen as an extension of the equation for the lorentz force?
I'm trying to understand the working principle of an AC motor
Basically the only equation I know in magnetism so far is the equation for the Lorentz force which I know as Fb=q*vxB
Looking at an AC generator, my intuition tells me that we should use this equation for the Lorentz force, for a single particle to find the direction and determine the force, then from there perhaps intergrate over the entire wire to find the total current induced
I see in books/videos however that this seems to be governed by Faradays Law which wikipedia states as:
The induced electromotive force in any closed circuit is equal to the negative of the time rate of change of the magnetic flux through the circuit.
Does this mean that the basic equation I know: Fb=q*vxB is somehow realted to (or derived from) Faradays law? What is the relation between them? Can Faradays Law be seen as an extension of the equation for the lorentz force?