Ragwire, if this is such s "self-explanatory" equation - why didn`t you answer my simple question in post#12:I did not say to remove anything from the website, but it is obvious that some of you, somehow missed the context of my postings and were defensive. Sorry if I could have written it differently. I am surprised about the discussion of this simple, and I think, self explanatory equation.
"Does this mean that the impedance Z is increasing continuously with frequency f?"
EDIT: Perhaps you should have answered that this "beautiful" equation applies for the case of resonance only (as mentioned in the referenced book).
But another question arises: What is the advantage of this equation ? Why do you like it so much?
I suppose, one could use this equation under the assumption that the Q of the tank circuit (Q=Fo/BW,3dB) could be measured because the losses of the inductor are not known.
However, knowing the definition Q=Rp/2*Pi*Fo*L (for the inductor) and assuming (as you did) a lossless capacitor you can derive the desired value of Zo=Z(F=Fo)=Rp directly from this Q measurement. Thus, we do not need "your" equation. (Note that in the above formulas Rp is the parallel loss resistance of the tank circuit and is NOT identical with Rp in the book page referenced by you.)
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