Hi, could someone please point me in the right direction, I don't mind reading articles or using equations:
Suppose I feed the output of an amplifier (audio range, f = 20Hz to 20kHz) to a DC blocking cap, how can I calculate how large the blocking cap must be in order to not affect the bass response adversely?
I have read that a blocking cap should behave close to a short at working frequency i.e. Xc should be minimised where Xc = 1/(2*pi*f*c).
However, I have a valve pre-amp with 4.7uF blocking caps at the output, which at the low end would give Xc = 1/(2*pi*20*0.0000047 = 1693 ohms ! This is nowhere near a short.
It's also confusing as I commonly see very small blocking caps at the input of audio equipment (e.g. 220nF) but much larger caps at the output (10uF and above). Why does this not wreck the bass response at the input?
Many thanks
Suppose I feed the output of an amplifier (audio range, f = 20Hz to 20kHz) to a DC blocking cap, how can I calculate how large the blocking cap must be in order to not affect the bass response adversely?
I have read that a blocking cap should behave close to a short at working frequency i.e. Xc should be minimised where Xc = 1/(2*pi*f*c).
However, I have a valve pre-amp with 4.7uF blocking caps at the output, which at the low end would give Xc = 1/(2*pi*20*0.0000047 = 1693 ohms ! This is nowhere near a short.
It's also confusing as I commonly see very small blocking caps at the input of audio equipment (e.g. 220nF) but much larger caps at the output (10uF and above). Why does this not wreck the bass response at the input?
Many thanks