Is this a joke ?So what you are saying is that once you take the Laplace transform of an impulse you get 1 divided by what!!!!
The laplace of an impluse function is 1. Or 1/1
I am assuming you mean the delta function
without entering the theory of distributions the integral
is not defined
Anyway what the hell does this have to do with my previous questions?
What happens when you take the derivative of the delta function.
Same question but for the step function heaviside ,.....
Please don't answer this this can be talked about in the math forum haven't had to much time to get into anwsering question their to busy learning electronics....