Amplification problem

Thread Starter

boks

Joined Oct 10, 2008
218


I want to find the transfer function of this circuit, and I start by finding the voltage at the positive input of op-amp 1. If my understanding is correct, voltage division gives

\(V_+ =\frac{V_i}{1 + jwC_1 R_1}\)

If the op-amp is assumed to be ideal, this will also be the voltage at the negative input, and since there is no voltage drop on the line between the negative input and the uotput, the output of this op-amp has no gain. Is this correct so far?
 

Audioguru

Joined Dec 20, 2007
11,248
The first opamps have a very high input impedance so they don't load the filters at their inputs, a very low output impedance so the mixing resistors do not load them down and have a gain of exactly 1.
 

mik3

Joined Feb 4, 2008
4,843
Yes you are right. Find the input of op amp 2 too. Op amps 1 and 2 are voltage followers, so their outputs are the same as their inputs (almost for real ones). Op amp 3 is a summing amplifier thus add the output voltages of 1 and 2 and multiply them by the appropriate gain.
 

Ron H

Joined Apr 14, 2005
7,063


I want to find the transfer function of this circuit, and I start by finding the voltage at the positive input of op-amp 1. If my understanding is correct, voltage division gives

\(V_+ =\frac{V_i}{1 + jwC_1 R_1}\)

If the op-amp is assumed to be ideal, this will also be the voltage at the negative input, and since there is no voltage drop on the line between the negative input and the uotput, the output of this op-amp has no gain. Is this correct so far?
When the output is identical to the input, the gain is not zero, it is 1. Vin*1=Vout.
 
Top