Hi guys, I need help with this proof. I'm not sure how to get started:
Prove that (u/v)%p = (u/v)%q for any two numbers u and v < p, q, where v divides u evenly and p and q are prime numbers.
nm dont worry about this, someone explained it to me
Prove that (u/v)%p = (u/v)%q for any two numbers u and v < p, q, where v divides u evenly and p and q are prime numbers.
nm dont worry about this, someone explained it to me
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