Shouldn't it be:from KVL
20 = 6*i + 2*i + 6*i
Hence i = ?
The voltage drop across a resistor is given by V=IR. For the 10 ohm resistor there is no current flowing across it (on one end is an open circuit), so there can be no voltage drop. That means that the voltage on one side of the resistor is the same as on the other side, hence the same as node c.Why consider the Vth equal to the voltage across the 6 ohm resistor when there is the existence of the 10 ohm resistor?
Given that the 10 ohm resistor is omitted because it is connected to an open circuit, then Voltage at a and b should also be omitted isn't? confusing.
thanks friends!
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